I just want to clear up the question. I think Tim and Nathan may have both answered this, but it’s a question that President Lockhart raised earlier. In Mexico’s case, for example, where almost all the major banks are foreign owned—EU banks, Spanish banks—those banks clearly have access to dollars through the ECB swap line. There’s no reason that the dollar funding needs of those banks, to the extent that they can move these things around, can’t be satisfied by access to dollars from the ECB. Is that a correct or an incorrect assumption?